I was listening to Senator Sessions' opening comments at Judge Sotomayor's confirmation hearing, and he was raising an objection to what he perceives as judicial activism when he said something like, "...this is not a brave new world where language has lost all of its meaning." And I sat there for a moment and thought, "Well, that's wrong."
What is he alluding to? Do you see the wires that he has crossed?
I am going to hunt down a transcript of his remarks, find the passage in question, and create a question on our summer homework exam that deals with this allusion, and what it might mean, and why I think he's got it wrong. Comments, please.
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I also believe his statement is wrong because in "Brave New World" I don't believe that the language lost its meaning. I believe it lost some of its freedom in lives and some experiences like family, but not meaning in the language. Language can be use to express oneself. Even if the people in "Brave New World", are conditioned to have certain thoughts and feelings, they can still express themselves.
ReplyDeleteYes, Nicole, thank you for responding. I think maybe he's confusing Brave New World with George Orwell's 1984 -- something that Postman discusses at one point. In 1984, language DOES lose its meaning -- something that Orwell discusses in the essay "Politics and the English Language." Anyone who reads this post will essentially have the answer to the test question.
ReplyDeleteYes, when I read your post I also immediately thought of Orwell's 1984 because in that book I remember how one of the characters worked as someone who simplifies the English language thus taking away the words necessary to communicate and express themselves.
ReplyDelete:) Good job, CH.
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